Return King

Return King

In the Bible But not in the Quran (49): King David's Adultery-true or Forged Story-e?

The Story of David's Adultery in the Bible:

Is it true or forged?

Upon Carefully Revising of 17 different versions of the Bible, in an attempt to clear up the fact that King David did not commit adultery, one may come out with some facts to answer these questions:

What King David had done with the woman?

Did King David commit adultery with her?

When this was happened?

What was the physiological status of the woman?

What was the outcome of this sexual act between King David and the woman according to the story of the Bible?

From the scientific point of view, Could this happen?

Would the woman have got pregnant while she was in such physiological situation?

The answers of these questions indicate that the Biblical story about King David adultery is fake, forged and it is nothing but a big historical lie.

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What King David had done with the woman (the wife of Urijah the Hittite who was one of King David's soldiers)?

Did King David commit adultery with her?

2 Samuel 11:4

And when she came to him, he lay with her;

She came to him, and he slept with her.

After she arrived, he went to bed with her.

When she came to him, he had sexual relations with her.

She came to him. And he had sex with her.

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When this was happened?

What was the physiological status of the woman?

2 Samuel 11:4

English Standard Version (ESV)

Now she had been purifying herself from her uncleanness

Young's Literal Translation (YLT)

And she is purifying herself from her uncleanness

New International Reader's Version (NIRV)

Then David sent messengers to get her. She came to him. And he had sex with her. Then she went back home. All of that took place after she had already made herself "clean" from her monthly period.

Today's New International Version (TNIV)

Now she was purifying herself from her monthly uncleanness

New Century Version (NCV)

Now Bathsheba had purified herself from her monthly period

Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB)

Now she had just been purifying herself from her uncleanness

However, these versions of the Bible are clearer about the physiological status of the woman

2 Samuel 11:4

The Message (MSG)

David sent his agents to get her. After she arrived, he went to bed with her. (This occurred during the time of "purification" following her period.) Then she returned home.

New Living Translation (NLT)

Then David sent messengers to get her; and when she came to the palace, he slept with her. She had just completed the purification rites after having her menstrual period. Then she returned home.

New Life Version (NLV)

David sent men and took her. When she came to him, he lay with her. After she had made herself clean again, she returned to her house.

It follows that the woman had just been purifying herself from her uncleanness

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What was the outcome of this sexual act between King David and the woman according to the story of the Bible?

2 Samuel 11:5

New International Version (NIV)

The woman conceived and sent word to David, saying, "I am pregnant."

King James Version (KJV)

And the woman conceived, and sent and told David, and said: I am with child.

New American Standard Bible (NASB)

The woman conceived; and she sent and told David, and said, "I am pregnant."

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Could this happen? From the scientific point of view,

Would the woman have got pregnant while she was in such physiological situation?

The answer is: Absolutely NO.

Why?

It is well known that ovulation occurs at the days of 12, 13, 14 and 15 of the menstrual period.

The woman that King David is accused to commit adultery with her was at the days of five or six at maximum.

That is why; she would never have got pregnant!

This indicates that the Biblical story about King David adultery is fake, forged and it is nothing but a big historical lie.

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What are the reference 17 different versions of the Bible used in this article? They are:

New American Standard Bible, New International Version, The Message, Amplified Bible, New Living Translation, King James Version, New King James Version, English Standard Version, 21st Century King James Version, Darby Translation, American Standard Version, New Life Version, Young's Literal Translation, New International Reader's Version, Today's New International Version, New International Version – UK, Holman Christian Standard Bible

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The Story of King David's Adultery in the Quran:

Is it true or forged?

Of course, it is forged.

There is no such story in the Noble Quran.

This malicious story is not present in the Noble Quran, the book which forbids saying anything that could dishonor any prophet including King David.

This nasty and wicked story could be applicable for a lewd shamelessly vulgar burlesque street man not for a great prophet like King David.

King David is mentioned many times in the Noble Quran as for example:

In the verse 38:17, Allah, exalted is He says:

Bear O Muhammad with what they say in your rejection, and remember Our bondman David; He says: mention to them the event of Our slave David, the one of fortitude, the lord of might who had strength for our worship.

He was obedient, always engaged in the worship of Allah.

Lo! He was ever turning in repentance towards Allah,

Indeed he was a penitent [soul]; always returning to what pleases Allah.

The one which Allah blessed him like that would never ever have done anything malicious like that.

According to the Noble Quran, it is a very big unforgiving sin to say or to believe that King David or any other prophet had committed adultery.

Anyone does say or believe that King David or any other prophet had committed adultery or did one of the above seven mentioned David' sins will dwell in the Eternal fire.

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Back to the main issue of my series of articles; this is my question to you smart readers: "Is the Quran quoted from the Bible?"

About the Author

Professor Dr. Ibrahim Khalil
Prof. of Clinical and Chemical Pathology,
Head of Clinical Microbiology and Infection Control Unit,
Ain-Shams University. Cairo, Egypt.
And,
President of the Egyptian Society of Inventors.
Member of the Egyptian union of Writers

why does Frodo, Gandolf and the others have to leave the shire at the end of Return of the king?

In The lord of the rings, return of the kings, why does frodo, gandolf, bilbo baggins and the others have to leave on the ship at the end of the movie?

Gandalf was sent to Middle-Earth earlier in the Third Age to help bring about the downfall of Sauron. Once that mission was complete he had to go back to Valinor.

Frodo, Bilbo, and eventually Sam leave the Shire to sail into the West, because having carried the great burden of the Ring, they were given permission to ease their troubles in the Blessed Realm. Having carried the Ring they will always carry a burden on their heart and minds that can only be relieved in the paradise found in the West. I don't know if Frodo, Bilbo, or Sam ever got to go to Valinor. They may have only gone to Tol Eressea, which is in sight of the Blessed Realms and is a paradise in its own right.

The Return Of The King - LOTR [HD-720p]